-i- In what way does an -Ideal machine- differ from a -Practical machine-ii- Can a single machine act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier the same time-

Question

Toppr Admin · Accepted Answer

-i- The efficiency of an ideal machine -free from friction etc- is equal to 1- But in actual practical- the efficiency is less than 1 due to the energy loss in friction-ii-xA0-A single machine cannot act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same time-

(i) In what way does an 'Ideal machine' differ from a 'Practical machine'?
(ii) Can a single machine act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same time?

(i) The efficiency of an ideal machine (free from friction etc) is equal to $1$ . But in actual practical, the efficiency is less than $1$ due to the energy loss in friction.
(ii) A single machine cannot act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same time.

(i) In what way does an 'Ideal machine' differ from a 'Practical machine'?(ii) Can a single machine act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same time?

(i) The efficiency of an ideal machine (free from friction etc) is equal to 1. But in actual practical, the efficiency is less than 1 due to the energy loss in friction.(ii) A single machine cannot act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same time.

(i) In what way does an 'Ideal machine' differ from a 'Practical machine'?
(ii) Can a single machine act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same time?

(i) The efficiency of an ideal machine (free from friction etc) is equal to $1$ . But in actual practical, the efficiency is less than $1$ due to the energy loss in friction.
(ii) A single machine cannot act as a force multiplier and a speed multiplier at the same time.