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Question

π/40log(1+tanx)dx is equal to
  1. π8loge2
  2. π4logee
  3. π4loge2
  4. π8loge(12)

A
π4loge2
B
π8loge(12)
C
π8loge2
D
π4logee
Solution
Verified by Toppr

The correct option is A π8loge2
Let I=π/40log(1+tanx)dx.....(i)
I=π/40log[1+tan(π4x)]dx
[a0f(x)dx=a0f(ax)dx]
=π/40log[1+1tanx1+tanx]dx
=π/40log[21+tanx]dx$
=π/40log2dxπ/40log(1+tanx)dx
I=log2[x]π/40I [from Eq. (i)]
2I=π4loge2
I=π8loge2

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