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NCERT exemplar for class 6

Mathematics

In examples 1 to 7 from NCERT exemplar for class 6, write the correct answer from the given four options:

Example 1: 3 × 10000 + 0 × 1000 + 8 × 100 + 0 × 10 + 7 × 1 is same
as
(A) 30087   (B) 30807   (C) 3807   (D) 3087

Example 2: 1 billion is equal to
(A) 100 millions   (B) 10 millions  (C) 1000 lakhs   (D) 10000 lakhs

Example 3: Which of the following numbers in Roman Numerals is
incorrect?
(A) LXII   (B) XCI   (C) LC   (D) XLIV

Example 4: Which of the following is not defined?
(A) 5 + 0   (B) 5 – 0   (C) 5 × 0   (D) 5 ÷ 0

Example 5: The product of a non-zero whole number and its successor
is always divisible by
(A) 2   (B) 3   (C) 4   (D) 5

Example 6: The number of factors of 36 is
(A) 6   (B) 7   (C) 8   (D) 9

Example 7: The sum of first three common multiples of 3, 4 and 9 is
(A) 108   (B) 144   (C) 252   (D) 216

In examples 8 to 10 from NCERT exemplar for class 6, fill in the blanks to make the statements true:

Example 8: In Indian System of Numeration, the number 61711682 is written, using commas, as __________.
Solution: 6,17,11,682

Example 9: The smallest 4 digit number with different digits is __________ .
Solution: 1023

Example 10: Numbers having more than two factors are called __________ numbers.
Solution: Composite

In examples 11 to 13 from NCERT exemplar for class 6, state whether the given statements are true or false:

Example 11: The number 58963 rounded off to nearest hundred is 58900.
Solution: False.

Example 12: LXXV is greater than LXXIV.
Solution: True [LXXV = 75, LXXIV = 74]

Example 13: If a number is divisible by 2 and 3, then it is also divisible by 6. So, if a number is divisible by 2 and 4, it must be divisible by 8.
Solution: False [2 and 4 are not coprimes]

Example 14: Population of Agra and Aligarh districts in the year 2001 was 36,20, 436 and 29,92,286, respectively. What was the total population of the two districts in that year?
Solution: In 2001 Population of Agra = 3620436
Population of Aligarh = 2992286
Total population = 3620436 + 2992286 = 66, 12, 722

Example 15: Estimate the product 5981 × 4428 by rounding off each number to the nearest (i) tens (ii) hundreds
Solution: (i) 5981 rounded off to nearest tens = 5980
4428 rounded off to nearest tens = 4430 The estimated product = 5980 × 4430 = 26491400
(ii) 5981 rounded off to nearest hundreds = 6000
4428 rounded off to nearest hundreds = 4400
The estimated product = 6000 × 4400 = 26400000

Example 16: Find the product 8739 × 102 using distributive property.
Solution: 8739 × 102 = 8739 × (100 + 2)
= 8739 × 100 + 8739 × 2
= 873900 + 17478
= 891378

Example 17: Floor of a room measures 4.5 metres × 3 metres. Find the minimum number of complete square marble slabs of equal size required to cover the entire floor.
Solution: To find the minimum number of square slabs to cover the floor, we have to find the greatest size of each such slab. For this purpose, we have to find the HCF of 450 and 300. (Since 4.5m = 450cm and 3m = 300cm)
Now HCF of 450 and 300 = 150. So the required size of the slab must be 150cm × 150cm.
Hence, the number of slabs required =Area of the floor450×300 = 6
Area of one slab     150×150

(C) Exercise
In questions 1 to 38 from NCERT exemplar for class 6, out of the four options, only one is correct. Write the correct answer.

1. The product of the place values of two 2’s in 428721 is
(A) 4 (B) 40000 (C) 400000 (D) 40000000

2. 3 × 10000 + 7 × 1000 + 9 × 100 + 0 ×10 + 4 is the same as
(A) 3794 (B) 37940 (C) 37904 (D) 379409

3. If 1 is added to the greatest 7- digit number, it will be equal to
(A) 10 thousand (B) 1 lakh (C) 10 lakh (D) 1 crore

4. The expanded form of the number 9578 is
(A) 9 × 10000 + 5 × 1000 + 7 × 10 + 8 × 1
(B) 9 × 1000 + 5 × 100 + 7 × 10 + 8 × 1
(C) 9 × 1000 + 57 × 10 + 8 × 1
(D) 9 × 100 + 5 × 100 + 7 × 10 + 8 × 1

5. When rounded off to nearest thousands, the number 85642 is
(A) 85600 (B) 85700 (C) 85000 (D) 86000

6. The largest 4-digit number, using any one digit twice, from digits 5,
9, 2 and 6 is
(A) 9652 (B) 9562 (C) 9659 (D) 9965

7. In Indian System of Numeration, the number 58695376 is written as
(A) 58,69, 53, 76 (B) 58,695,376 (C) 5,86,95,376 (D) 586,95,376

8. One million is equal to
(A) 1 lakh (B) 10 lakh (C) 1 crore (D) 10 crore

9. The greatest number which on rounding off to nearest thousands gives 5000, is
(A) 5001 (B) 5559 (C) 5999 (D) 5499

10. Keeping the place of 6 in the number 6350947 same, the smallest number obtained by rearranging other digits is
(A) 6975430 (B) 6043579 (C) 6034579 (D) 6034759

11. Which of the following numbers in Roman numerals is incorrect?
(A) LXXX (B) LXX (C) LX (D) LLX

12. The largest 5-digit number having three different digits is
(A) 98978 (B) 99897 (C) 99987 (D) 98799

13. The smallest 4-digit number having three different digits is
(A) 1102 (B) 1012 (C) 1020 (D) 1002

14. Number of whole numbers between 38 and 68 is
(A) 31 (B) 30 (C) 29 (D) 28

15. The product of successor and predecessor of 999 is
(A) 999000 (B) 998000 (C) 989000 (D) 1998

16. The product of a non-zero whole number and its successor is always
(A) an even number (B) an odd number (C) a prime number (D) divisible by 3

17. A whole number is added to 25 and the same number is subtracted from 25. The sum of the resulting numbers is
(A) 0 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75

18. Which of the following is not true?
(A) (7 + 8) + 9 = 7 + (8 + 9)
(B) (7 × 8) × 9 = 7 × (8 × 9)
(C) 7 + 8 × 9 = (7 + 8) × (7 + 9)
(D) 7 × (8 + 9) = (7 × 8) + (7 × 9)

19. By using dot (.) patterns, which of the following numbers can be arranged in all the three ways namely a line, a triangle and a rectangle?
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 12

20. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Both addition and multiplication are associative for whole
numbers.
(B) Zero is the identity for muliplication of whole numbers.
(C) Addition and multiplication both are commutative for whole
numbers.
(D) Multiplication is distributive over addition for whole numbers.

21. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) 0 + 0 = 0 (B) 0 – 0 = 0 (C) 0 × 0 = 0 (D) 0 ÷ 0 = 0

22. The predecessor of 1 lakh is
(A) 99000 (B) 99999 (C) 999999 (D) 100001

23. The successor of 1 million is
(A) 2 millions (B) 1000001 (C) 100001 (D) 10001

24. Number of even numbers between 58 and 80 is
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 13

25. Sum of the number of primes between 16 to 80 and 90 to 100 is
(A) 20 (B) 18 (C) 17 (D) 16

26. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) The HCF of two distinct prime numbers is 1
(B) The HCF of two co prime numbers is 1
(C) The HCF of two consecutive even numbers is 2
(D) The HCF of an even and an odd number is even.

27. The number of distinct prime factors of the largest 4-digit number is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 11

28. The number of distinct prime factors of the smallest 5-digit number is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

29. If the number 7254*98 is divisible by 22, the digit at * is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 0

30. The largest number which always divides the sum of any pair of consecutive odd numbers is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

31. A number is divisible by 5 and 6. It may not be divisible by
(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 30 (D) 60

32. The sum of the prime factors of 1729 is
(A) 13 (B) 19 (C) 32 (D) 39

33. The greatest number which always divides the product of the predecessor and successor of an odd natural number other than 1, is
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 8

34. The number of common prime factors of 75, 60, 105 is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

35. Which of the following pairs is not coprime?
(A) 8, 10 (B) 11, 12 (C) 1, 3 (D) 31, 33

36. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?
(A) 1011011 (B) 1111111 (C) 22222222 (D) 3333333

37. LCM of 10, 15 and 20 is
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 180

38. LCM of two numbers is 180. Then which of the following is not the HCF of the numbers?
(A) 45 (B) 60 (C) 75 (D) 90

In questions 39 to 98 in NCERT exemplar for class 6 state whether the given statements are true (T) or false (F).

39. In Roman numeration, a symbol is not repeated more than three times.
40. In Roman numeration, if a symbol is repeated, its value is multiplied as many times as it occurs.
41. 5555 = 5 × 1000 + 5 × 100 + 5 × 10 + 5 × 1
42. 39746 = 3 × 10000 + 9 × 1000 + 7 × 100 + 4 × 10 + 6
43. 82546 = 8 × 1000 + 2 × 1000 + 5 × 100 + 4 × 10 + 6
44. 532235 = 5 × 100000 + 3 × 10000 + 2 × 1000 + 2 × 100 + 3 × 10 + 5
45. XXIX = 31
46. LXXIV = 74
47. The number LIV is greater than LVI.
48. The numbers 4578, 4587, 5478, 5487 are in descending order.
49. The number 85764 rounded off to nearest hundreds is written as 85700.
50. The estimated sum of 7826 and 12469 rounded off to hundreds is 20,000.
51. The largest six-digit telephone number that can be formed by using digits 5, 3, 4, 7, 0, 8 only once is 875403.
52. The number 81652318 will be read as eighty one crore six lakh fifty two thousand three hundred eighteen.
53. The largest 4-digit number formed by the digits 6, 7, 0, 9 using each digit only once is 9760.
54. Among kilo, milli and centi, the smallest is centi.
55. Successor of a one digit number is always a one digit number.
56. Successor of a 3-digit number is always a 3-digit number.
57. Predecessor of a two digit number is always a two digit number.
58. Every whole number has its successor.
59. Every whole number has its predecessor.
60. Between any two natural numbers, there is one natural number.
61. The smallest 4-digit number is the successor of the largest 3-digit number.
62. Of the given two natural numbers, the one having more digits is greater.
63. Natural numbers are closed under addition.
64. Natural numbers are not closed under multiplication.
65. Natural numbers are closed under subtraction.
66. Addition is commutative for natural numbers.
67. 1 is the identity for addition of whole numbers.
68. 1 is the identity for multiplication of whole numbers.
69. There is a whole number which when added to a whole number,
gives the number itself.
70. There is a natural number which when added to a natural number,
gives the number itself.
71. If a whole number is divided by another whole number, which is
greater than the first one, the quotient is not equal to zero.
72. Any non-zero whole number divided by itself gives the quotient 1.
73. The product of two whole numbers need not be a whole number.
74. A whole number divided by another whole number greater than 1
never gives the quotient equal to the former.
75. Every multiple of a number is greater than or equal to the number.
76. The number of multiples of a given number is finite.
77. Every number is a multiple of itself.
78. Sum of two consecutive odd numbers is always divisible by 4.
79. If a number divides three numbers exactly, it must divide their sum
exactly.
80. If a number exactly divides the sum of three numbers, it must exactly
divide the numbers separately.
81. If a number is divisible both by 2 and 3, then it is divisible by 12.
82. A number with three or more digits is divisible by 6, if the number
formed by its last two digits (i.e., ones and tens) is divisible by 6.
83. A number with 4 or more digits is divisible by 8, if the number formed by the last three digits is divisible by 8.
84. If the sum of the digits of a number is divisible by 3, then the number itself is divisible by 9.
85. All numbers which are divisible by 4 may not be divisible by 8.
86. The Highest Common Factor of two or more numbers is greater than their Lowest Common Multiple.
87. LCM of two or more numbers is divisible by their HCF.
88. LCM of two numbers is 28 and their HCF is 8.
89. LCM of two or more numbers may be one of the numbers.
90. HCF of two or more numbers may be one of the numbers.
91. Every whole number is the successor of another whole number.
92. Sum of two whole numbers is always less than their product.
93. If the sum of two distinct whole numbers is odd, then their difference also must be odd.
94. Any two consecutive numbers are coprime.
95. If the HCF of two numbers is one of the numbers, then their LCM is the other number.
96. The HCF of two numbers is smaller than the smaller of the numbers.
97. The LCM of two numbers is greater than the larger of the numbers.
98. The LCM of two coprime numbers is equal to the product of the numbers.

In questions 99 to 151, fill in the blanks to make the statements true.

99. (a) 10 million = _____ crore.
(b) 10 lakh = _____ million.

100. (a) 1 metre = _____ millimetres.
(b) 1 centimetre = _____ millimetres.
(c) 1 kilometre = _____ millimetres.

101. (a) 1 gram = _____ milligrams.
(b) 1 litre = _____ millilitres.
(c) 1 kilogram = _____ miligrams.

102. 100 thousands = _____ lakh.
103. Height of a person is 1m 65cm. His height in millimetres is_______.
104. Length of river ‘Narmada’ is about 1290km. Its length in metres is_______.
105. The distance between Sringar and Leh is 422km. The same distance in metres is_____.
106. Writing of numbers from the greatest to the smallest is called an arrangement in _____ order.
107. By reversing the order of digits of the greatest number made by five different non-zero digits, the new number is the _____ number of five digits.
108. By adding 1 to the greatest_____ digit number, we get ten lakh.
109. The number five crore twenty three lakh seventy eight thousand four hundred one can be written, using commas, in the Indian System of Numeration as _____.
110. In Roman Numeration, the symbol X can be subtracted from_____, M and C only.
111. The number 66 in Roman numerals is_____.
112. The population of Pune was 2,538,473 in 2001. Rounded off to nearest thousands, the population was __________.
113. The smallest whole number is_____.
114. Successor of 106159 is _____.
115. Predecessor of 100000 is_____.
116. 400 is the predecessor of _____.
117. _____ is the successor of the largest 3 digit number.
118. If 0 is subtracted from a whole number, then the result is the _____ itself .
119. The smallest 6 digit natural number ending in 5 is _____.
120. Whole numbers are closed under _____ and under_____.
121. Natural numbers are closed under _____ and under_____.
122. Division of a whole number by _____ is not defined.
123. Multiplication is distributive over _____ for whole numbers.
124. 2395 × _____ = 6195 × 2395
125. 1001 × 2002 = 1001 × (1001+_____ )
126. 10001 × 0 = _____
127. 2916 × _____ = 0
128. 9128 × _____ = 9128
129. 125 + (68+17) = (125 + _____ ) + 17
130. 8925 ×1 = _____
131. 19 × 12 + 19 = 19 × (12 + _____)
132. 24 × 35 = 24 × 18 + 24 × _____
133. 32 × (27 × 19) = (32 × _____ ) × 19
134. 786 × 3 + 786 × 7 = _____
135. 24 × 25 = 24 × 600 4=
136. A number is a _____ of each of its factor.
137. _____ is a factor of every number.
138. The number of factors of a prime number is_____.
139. A number for which the sum of all its factors is equal to twice the
number is called a _____ number.
140. The numbers having more than two factors are called _____ numbers.
141. 2 is the only _____ number which is even.
142. Two numbers having only 1 as a common factor are called_____
numbers.
143. Number of primes between 1 to 100 is _____.
144. If a number has _____ in ones place, then it is divisible by 10.
145. A number is divisible by 5, if it has _____ or _____ in its ones place.
146. A number is divisible by _____ if it has any of the digits 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8 in its ones place.
147. If the sum of the digits in a number is a _____ of 3, then the number is divisible by 3.
148. If the difference between the sum of digits at odd places (from the right) and the sum of digits at even places (from the right) of a number is either 0 or divisible by _____, then the number is divisible by 11.
149. The LCM of two or more given numbers is the lowest of their common _____.
150. The HCF of two or more given numbers is the highest of their common _____.

151. Given below are two columns – Column I and Column II. Match each item of Column I with the corresponding item of Column II.

Column I Column II
(i) The difference of two consecutive
whole numbers
(a) odd
(ii) The product of two non-zero
consecutive whole numbers
(b) 0
(iii) Quotient when zero is divided by
another non-zero whole number
(c) 3
(iv) 2 added three times, to the
smallest whole number
(d) 1
(v) Smallest odd prime number (e) 6
(f) even

152. Arrange the following numbers in descending order:
8435, 4835, 13584, 5348, 25843

153. Of the following numbers which is the greatest? Which is the smallest
38051425, 30040700, 67205602

154. Write in expanded form :
(a) 74836
(b) 574021
(c) 8907010

155. As per the census of 2001, the population of four states are given below. Arrange the states in ascending and descending order of their population.
(a) Maharashtra 96878627
(b) Andhra Pradesh 76210007
(c) Bihar 82998509
(d) Uttar Pradesh 166197921

156. The diameter of Jupiter is 142800000 metres. Insert commas suitably and write the diameter according to International System of Numeration.

157. India’s population has been steadily increasing from 439 millions in 1961 to 1028 millions in 2001. Find the total increase in population from 1961 to 2001. Write the increase in population in Indian System of Numeration, using commas suitably.

158. Radius of the Earth is 6400km and that of Mars is 4300000m. Whose radius is bigger and by how much?

159. In 2001, the populations of Tripura and Meghalaya were 3,199,203 and 2,318,822, respectively. Write the populations of these two states in words.

160. In a city, polio drops were given to 2,12,583 children on Sunday in March 2008 and to 2,16,813 children in the next month. Find the difference of the number of children getting polio drops in the two months.

161. A person had Rs 1000000 with him. He purchased a colour T.V. for Rs 16580, a motor cycle for Rs 45890 and a flat for Rs 870000. How much money was left with him?

162. Out of 180000 tablets of Vitamin A, 18734 are distributed among the students in a district. Find the number of the remaining vitamin tablets.

163. Chinmay had Rs 610000. He gave Rs 87500 to Jyoti, Rs 126380 to Javed and Rs 350000 to John. How much money was left with him?

164. Find the difference between the largest number of seven digits and the smallest number of eight digits.

165. A mobile number consists of ten digits. The first four digits of the number are 9, 9, 8 and 7. The last three digits are 3, 5 and 5. The remaining digits are distinct and make the mobile number, the greatest possible number. What are these digits?

166. A mobile number consists of ten digits. First four digits are 9,9,7 and 9. Make the smallest mobile number by using only one digit twice from 8, 3, 5, 6, 0.

167. In a five digit number, digit at ten’s place is 4, digit at unit’s place is one fourth of ten’s place digit, digit at hunderd’s place is 0, digit at thousand’s place is 5 times of the digit at unit’s place and ten thousand’s place digit is double the digit at ten’s place. Write the number.

168. Find the sum of the greatest and the least six digit numbers formed by the digits 2, 0, 4, 7, 6, 5 using each digit only once.

169. A factory has a container filled with 35874 litres of cold drink. In how many bottles of 200 ml capacity each can it be filled?

170. The population of a town is 450772. In a survey, it was reported that one out of every 14 persons is illiterate. In all how many illiterate persons are there in the town?

171. Find the LCM of 80, 96, 125, 160.

172. Make the greatest and the smallest 5-digit numbers using different digits in which 5 appears at ten’s place.
173. How many grams should be added to 2kg 300g to make it 5kg 68g?
174. A box contains 50 packets of biscuits each weighing 120g. How many such boxes can be loaded in a van which cannot carry beyond 900kg?
175. How many lakhs make five billions?
176. How many millions make 3 crores?
177. Estimate each of the following by rounding off each number to nearest hundreds:
(a) 874 + 478
(b) 793 + 397
(c) 11244 + 3507
(d) 17677 + 13589

178. Estimate each of the following by rounding off each number to nearest
tens:
(a) 11963 – 9369
(b) 76877 – 7783
(c) 10732 – 4354
(d) 78203 – 16407

179. Estimate each of the following products by rounding off each number to nearest tens:
(a) 87 × 32
(b) 311×113
(c) 3239 × 28
(d) 1385 × 789

180. The population of a town was 78787 in the year 1991 and 95833 in
the year 2001. Estimate the increase in population by rounding off
each population to nearest hundreds.

181. Estimate the product 758 × 6784 using the general rule.
182. A garment factory produced 216315 shirts, 182736 trousers and 58704 jackets in a year. What is the total production of all the three items in that year?
183. Find the LCM of 160, 170 and 90.
184. A vessel has 13litres 200mL of fruit juice. In how many glasses each of capacity 60mL can it be filled?
185. Determine the sum of the four numbers as given below:
(a) successor of 32
(b) predecessor of 49
(c) predecessor of the predecessor of 56
(d) successor of the successor of 67

186. A loading tempo can carry 482 boxes of biscuits weighing 15kg each, whereas a van can carry 518 boxes each of the same weight. Find the total weight that can be carried by both the vehicles.

187. In the marriage of her daughter, Leela spent Rs 216766 on food and decoration,Rs 122322 on jewellery, Rs 88234 on furniture and Rs 26780 on kitchen items. Find the total amount spent by her on the above items.

188. A box contains 5 strips having 12 capsules of 500mg medicine in each capsule. Find the total weight in grams of medicine in 32 such boxes.

189. Determine the least number which when divided by 3, 4 and 5 leaves remainder 2 in each case.

190. A merchant has 120 litres of oil of one kind, 180 litres of another kind and 240 litres of a third kind. He wants to sell the oil by filling the three kinds of oil in tins of equal capacity. What should be the greatest capacity of such a tin?

191. Find a 4-digit odd number using each of the digits 1, 2, 4 and 5 only once such that when the first and the last digits are interchanged, it is divisible by 4.

192. Using each of the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4 only once, determine the smallest 4-digit number divisible by 4.

193. Fatima wants to mail three parcels to three village schools. She finds that the postal charges are Rs 20, Rs 28 and Rs 36, respectively. If she wants to buy stamps only of one denomination, what is the greatest denomination of stamps she must buy to mail the three parcels?

194. Three brands A, B and C of biscuits are available in packets of 12, 15 and 21 biscuits respectively. If a shopkeepeer wants to buy an equal number of biscuits, of each brand, what is the minimum number of packets of each brand, he should buy?

195. The floor of a room is 8m 96cm long and 6m 72cm broad. Find the minimum number of square tiles of the same size needed to cover the entire floor.

196. In a school library, there are 780 books of English and 364 books of Science. Ms. Yakang, the librarian of the school wants to store these books in shelves such that each shelf should have the same number of books of each subject. What should be the minimum number of books in each shelf?

197. In a colony of 100 blocks of flats numbering 1 to 100, a school van stops at every sixth block while a school bus stops at every tenth block. On which stops will both of them stop if they start from the entrance of the colony?

198. Test the divisiblity of following numbers by 11
(a) 5335 (b) 9020814

199. Using divisiblity tests, determine which of the following numbers are divisible by 4?
(a) 4096 (b) 21084 (c) 31795012

200. Using divisiblity test. determine which of the following numbers are
divisible by 9?
(a) 672 (b) 5652

Answers:  Unit 1
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (D)
7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (C)
13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C)
19. (B) 20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (A)
25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (B)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (A) 36. (C)
37. (B) 38. (C) 39. T 40. F 41. T 42. T
43. F 44. T 45. F 46. T 47. F 48. F
49. F 50. T 51. F 52. F 53. T 54. F
55. F 56. F 57. F 58. T 59. F 60. F
61. T 62. T 63. T 64. F 65. F 66. T
67. F 68. T 69. T 70. F 71. T 72. T
73. F 74. T 75. T 76. F 77. T 78. T
79. T 80. F 81. F 82. F 83. T 84. F
85. T 86. F 87. T 88. F 89. T 90. T
91. F 92. F 93. T 94. T 95. T 96. F
97. F 98. T 99. (a) 1 (b) 1
100. (a) 1000 (b) 10 (c)10,00,000 101. (a) 1000 (b)1000 (c)1000,000
102.1 103. 1650 104. 1290000 105. 422000 106. descending

107. smallest 108. 6 109. 5,23,78,401 110. L 111. LXVI
112. 2,538,000 113. 0 114. 106160 115. 99999 116. 401
117. 1000 118. number 119. 100005 120. addition, multiplication
121. addition, multiplication 122. 0 123. addition 124. 6195
125. 1001 126. 0 127. 0 128. 1 129. 68 130. 8925
131. 1 132. 17 133. 27 134. 7860 135. 100 136. multiple
137. 1 138. 2 139. perfect 140. composite 141. prime
142. co-prime 143. 25 144. 0 145. 0, 5 146. 2
147. multiple 148. 11 149. multiple 150. factors
151. (i)- (d), (ii)- (f), (iii)- (b), (iv)- (e), (v)- (c)
152. 25843, 13584, 8435, 5348, 4835. 153. 67205602, 30040700
154. (a) 7 × 10000 + 4 × 1000 + 8 × 100 + 3 × 10 + 6 × 1
(b) 5 × 100000 + 7 × 10000 + 4 × 1000 + 0 × 100 + 2 × 10 + 1 × 1
(c) 8 × 1000000 + 9 × 100000 + 0 × 10000 + 7 × 1000 + 0 × 100 +
1 × 10 + 0 × 1
155. ascending order – (b), (c), (a), (d), descending order – (d), (a), (c), (b)
156. 142,800,000 157. 589 millions, 589,000,000
158. Earth, 2100000m
159.Tripura-Three million, one hundred ninety-nine thousand, two hundred
three; Meghalaya-Two million, three hundred eighteen thousand, eight
hundred twenty-two.
160. 4230   161. 67530   162. 161266 163. 46120 164. 1
165. 6, 4, 2 166. 9979003568 167. 85041 168. 969987
169. 179370 170. 32198 171.12000 172. 98756, 10253
173. 2768g or 2kg 768g 174. 150 boxes 175. 50000 176. 30
177. (a)1400 (b) 1200 (c) 14700 (d) 31300
178. (a) 2590 (b) 69100 (c) 6380 (d) 61790
179. (a) 2700 (b) 34100 (c) 97200 (d) 1098100

180. 17000 181. 5600000 182. 457755 183. 24480
184. 220 185. 204 186. 15000kg 187. Rs. 454102
188. 960000g 189. 62 190. 60 L 191. 4521
192. 1324 193. Rs. 4 194. A – 35, B – 28, C – 20
195. 12 196. 52 197. 30, 60, 90.
198. Both the numbers are divisible by 11.
199. All the three number are divisible by 4. 200. 5652.

Unit 2: Geometry

Unit 3: Integers

Unit 4: Fractions and decimals

Unit 5: Data handling

Unit 6: Mensuration

Unit 7: Algebra

Unit 8: Ration and Proportion

Unit 9: Symmetry and practical Geometry

Answers

Science

Chapter 1: Food: Where does it come from?

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS from NCERT exemplar for class 6

1. Given below are names of some animals:
(i) Goat  (ii) Human beings
(iii) Cockroach  (iv) Eagle

Which of the above animals form a pair of omnivores?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)

2. Honeybee makes honey from
(a) pollen (b) petals
(c) nectar (d) bud

3. Below are names of some animals:
(i) Cow
(ii) Sheep
(iii) Horse
(iv) Ox

Which of the above are sources of milk for human beings?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

4. Given below is a list of edible plants:
(i) Banana (ii) Pumpkin
(iii) Lady’s finger (iv) Brinjal

Which pair of plants have two or more edible parts?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

5. The part of a banana plant not used as food is
(a) flower
(b) fruit
(c) stem
(d) root

6. Read each set of terms and identify the odd set
(a) Cow, milk, butter
(b) Hen, meat, egg
(c) Goat, milk, meat
(d) Plant, vegetable, butter milk

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS from NCERT exemplar for class 6

7. Read the clues and fill up the blanks given below each of them.
(a) Honeybees suck from flower.
N ___ ___ T ___ R

(b) Animals which eat other animals.
___ A ___ N ___ V ___ R ___ S

(c) Animals which eat only plants and plant products.
H E ___ B ___ ___ ___ ___ E ___

(d) Animals which eat both plants and animals.
___ M N I ___ O ___ ___ ___

8. Why do boiled seeds fail to sprout?

9. Where do bees store honey?

10. Name two ingredients in our food that are not obtained from plants or animals. Mention one source for each ingredient.

11. Given below are jumbled words which are names of parts of a plant. Rearrange them to get the correct words.
(a) L I L C H I
(b) I T R U F
(c) S E A N B O Y A
(d) G U R S A
(e) R O U N D G U N T

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS from NCERT exemplar for class 6

12. Identify the animals in the grid given below as Fig. 1.1 and categorise them into herbivore, carnivore and omnivore.


13. Why should we avoid wastage of food?

14. Why do organisms need food? Write two reasons.

15. Match the organisms given in Column I with their part/product in Column II that is used by human beings as food.

 

Unit 2: Components of Food

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS from NCERT exemplar for class 6

1. Which one of the following food item does not provide dietary fibre?
(a) Whole grains
(b) Whole pulses
(c) Fruits and vegetables
(d) Milk

2. Which of the following sources of protein is different from others?
(a) Peas
(b) Gram
(c) Soyabeans
(d) Cottage cheese (paneer)

3. Which of the following nutrients is not present in milk?
(a) Protein
(b) Vitamin C
(d) Calcium
(d) Vitamin D

4. Read the food items given below:
(i) Wheat
(ii) Ghee
(iii) Iodised salt
(iv) Spinach (palak)
Which of the above food items are “energy giving foods”?
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

5. Read the following statements about diseases.
(i) They are caused by germs.
(ii) They are caused due to lack of nutrients in our diet.
(iii) They can be passed on to another person through contact.
(iv) They can be prevented by taking a balanced diet.
Which pair of statements best describes a deficiency disease?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)

6. Given below are the steps to test the presence of proteins in a food item:
(i) Take a small quantity of the food item in a test tube, add
10 drops of water to it and shake it.
(ii) Make a paste or powder of food to be tested.
(iii) Add 10 drops of caustic soda solution to the test tube and shake well.
(iv) Add 2 drops of copper sulphate solution to it.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the steps?
(a) i, ii, iv, iii (b) ii, i, iv, iii
(c) ii, i, iii, iv (d) iv, ii, i, iii

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS From NCERT exemplar for class 6

7. Unscramble the following words related to components of food and write them in the space provided.
(a) reinpot __________
(b) menliars __________
(c) tivanmi __________
(d) bocatradhyer __________
(e) nitesturn __________
(f) tfa __________

8. Which of the following food items does not provide any nutrient?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS From NCERT exemplar for class 6

9. Fill in the blanks from the list of words given below:
(carbohydrate, fat, protein, starch, sugar, Vitamin A,
Vitamin C, roughage, balanced diet, obesity, goitre )
(a) Egg yolk is rich in ____________ and egg albumin is rich in __________.
(b) Deficiency diseases can be prevented by taking a ___________.
(c) Eating too much of fat rich foods may lead to a condition called ____________.
(d) The component of food that does not provide any nutrient to our body and yet is essential in our food is ___________.
(e) The vitamin that gets easily destroyed by heating during cooking is __________.

10. Read the items of food listed below. Classify them into
carbohydrate rich, protein rich and fat rich foods and fill them in the given table.
Moong dal, fish, mustard oil, sweet potato, milk, rice, egg, beans, butter, butter milk (chhachh), cottage cheese (paneer), peas, maize, white bread.

Carbohydrates rich food item Protein Rich Food Item Fat Rich Food Item

11. Tasty food is not always nutritious and nutritious food may not always be tasty to eat. Comment with examples.

12. While using iodine in the laboratory, some drops of iodine fell on Paheli’s socks and some fell on her teacher’s saree. The drops of iodine on the saree turned blue-black while their colour did not change on the socks. What can be the possible reason?

13. Paheli and Boojho peeled some potatoes and cut them into small pieces. They washed and boiled them in water. They threw away the excess water and fried them in oil adding salt and spices. Although the potato dish tasted very good, its nutrient value was less. Suggest a method of cooking potatoes that will not lower the nutrients in them.

14. Paheli avoids eating vegetables but likes to eat biscuits, noodles and white bread. She frequently complains of stomachache and constipation. What are the food items that she should include in her diet to get rid of the problem? Give reason for your answer.

15. (a) List all those components of food that provide nutrients.
(b) Mention two components of food that do not provide nutrients.

16. ‘Minerals and vitamins are needed in very small quantities by our body as compared to other components, yet, they are an important part of a balanced diet.’ Explain the statement.

17. ‘Water does not provide nutrients, yet it is an important component of food.’ Explain?

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS from NCERT exemplar for class 6

18. Boojho was having difficulty in seeing things in dim light. The doctor tested his eyesight and prescribed a particular vitamin supplement. He also advised him to include a few food items in his diet.
(a) Which deficiency disease is he suffering from?
(b) Which food component may be lacking in his diet?
(c) Suggest some food items that he should include in his diet. (any four)

19. Solve the cross-word puzzle given as Fig. 2.1 in NCERT exemplar for class 6 from the clues given below.
Across
1. Lack of nutrients in our diet over a long period causes these diseases (10)
2. Rice and potato are rich in this type of carbohydrate (6)
3. Deficiency disease in bones making it become soft and bent (7)
4. The diet that provides all the nutrients that our body needs, in right quantities, along with adequate amount
of roughage and water (8, 4)
5. Deficiency disease with bleeding gums (6)
6. Disease caused due to deficiency of iodine (6)

Down
7. Starch and sugar in our food are rich in this type of energy giving nutrient (13)
8. The term given to the useful components of food (9)
9. The disease caused by deficiency of iron in diet (7)
10. Green leafy vegetables, liver and apples are rich in this mineral (4)
11. Deficiency disease caused due to lack of Vitamin B1 in the diet (8)

Unit 3: Fibre to Fabric

Unit 4: Sorting Materials and groups

Unit 5: Separation of substances 

Unit 6: Changes around us 

Unit 7: Getting to know plants

Unit 8: Body Movements 

Unit 9: The living organisms and their Substances 

Unit 10: Motion and measurement of Distances 

Unit 11: Light 

Unit 12: Electricity and Circuits 

Unit 13: Fun with Magnets

Unit 14: Water 

Unit 15: Air around us

Unit 16: Garbage in, Garbage out 

Answers

NCERT Exemplar

Class 7 Click here
Class 8 Click here
Class 9 Click here
Class 10 Click here
Class 11 Click here
Class 12 Click here

 

 

 

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