UPSEE Answer Key 2018

UPSEE Answer Key 2018

UPSEE 2018 was conducted on 29^th April, 05^th & 06^th May, 2018. The organising committee released the official UPSEE Answer key on 29^th April on the official UPSEE website. UPSEE 2018 results are expected to be declared in first week of June 2018. Let’s discuss the UPSEE Answer Key first. There were 4 question papers, vis-a-vis Paper 1, Paper 2, Paper 3 & Paper 4. Read on.

Paper 1 Answer Key

The answer key has been declared for all the sets of question papers. Since candidates might not remember the serial number of the questions, for their reference they can lookup the paper-1 question sets in the following links

1. Paper-1/SetAA
2. Paper-1/SetAB
3. Paper-1/SetAC
4. Paper-1/SetAD

Set AA

Set AB

Set AC

Set AD

Paper 2 Answer Key

For their reference, candidates can lookup the paper-1 question sets in the following links

1. Paper-2/All Sets

Set BA

Paper 3

Candidates may refer here for the Paper 3 set CA which is the only set available on the UPSEE official website.

Set CA

Paper 4

Candidates may refer here for the set DA,DB & DC sets of UPSEE Paper 4. For the 4^th set i.e. Set DD, click here.

Set DA

Any Objections to the UPSEE Answer Key

The candidates are requested to go through the answers and solutions of these papers. In case they find any error / mistake in the answers or solutions, they may write their grievances or ask for clarification by sending an E-Mail from your registered E-Mail ID to the university latest by May 07, 2018 as follows:

• Mail must be sent to [email protected]
• Subject must be : Paper name, grievance against Solutions of UPSEE-2018
• Please note that the content of your mails specify following elements.
  1. Roll Number:
  2. Name:
  3. Phone Number:
  4. Paper:
  5. Set Number:
  6. Specific question number which you disagree with the solution provided by the University:
  7. Answer Key notified by the university:
  8. Answer key of the specified question according to you:
  9. Proof/description/justification of your answer:
  10. The candidates must also send the scanned copy of any relevant text book for reference if required.
• Any Mail not duly containing the information above shall be considered vague & thereby rejected.

• The Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination (UPSEE) 2018 Result will be declared in the first week of June 2018.
• Candidates have to enter their Roll Number of UPSEE 2018 to get their results.
• The result will be published based on the marks obtained by the candidate in the entrance examination.
• There will be a separate Merit List of UPSEE 2018 for B.Tech courses.
• After the declaration of the result, the candidates will get admission according to their merit position, scores obtained in the UPSEE 2018 with the total marks in each subject.
• The inter-se merit will also be decided based on some basic rules given below.
• Candidates will be able to check the UPSEE result 2018 only via online mode.
• The result will be released along with the answer keys.
• After the declaration of result, score card will be declared by the exam conducting authority.
• Students can download their score cards through the official portal of UPSEE. The score card will contain candidate’s total marks and marks obtained in each subject of entrance test.

UPSEE 2018

Admission to various courses like B.Tech/B.Arch/B.Pharm/BHMCT at Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Technical University, Uttar Pradesh, formerly known as Uttar Pradesh Technical University (UPTU) is NOW OPEN!

If you are a student who has qualified from the UP Board, you must have surely heard of UPSEE (Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination). It is one of the most popular state level exams. The examination is the state level exam and a gateway of various UG and PG courses offered by the most of the institutions of Uttar Pradesh.

In an ideal world, writing only one exam would suffice to get yourself admitted to a college of your choice. This academic session  (2015-2018), the state government permitted 20% of the total sanctioned seats available in private institutions to be filled on the basis of JEE Main merit for admissions to technology course; out of which 10% seats were filled by UP domicile candidates on UP state merit using UP reservation policy and the remaining 10% seats were filled by all India merit candidates without reservation subject to eligibility conditions.

AKTU

As enshrined in the University Act, the University aims to provide and upgrade education, training and research in fields of technical education, and to create entrepreneurship and a conducive environment for pursuit of the technical education in close co-operation with industries. Further, as a very distinguishing feature of its vision, the University aims to make provisions for the advancement of technical education amongst classes and communities which are educationally backward.To fulfill the above broad vision, the University develops flexible and innovative academic programmes and procedures that cater to a very broad range of students with different background, and prepares them to compete at the national and international levels.

In addition to transmission of knowledge through a very well thought teaching pedagogy, the University lays a strong emphasis on knowledge creation through a well planned research programme in emerging areas, and application of knowledge by undertaking issues and problems from the industry. Apart from academics, the University lays a very strong emphasis on the overall development of a well rounded personality of its students with both professional and emotional maturity to take up the challenges in their chosen profession, and to contribute to the development of society.

Some of the top colleges which consider the score of UPSEE are:

GOVT. Aided Affiliated/Constituent Institutions Of UPTU, Lucknow

UPSEE Answer Key

Sonn after the conclusion of the UPSEE entrance examination which is scheduled to be held on 17th April, 23rd April and 24th April, 2018,  Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Technical University (AKTU) will release UPSEE 2018 answer key.

Sr. No.	Event	Date (Tentative)
1.	Application Form Availability (Online)	2nd week of January 2018
2.	Last Date for filling Application Form Online and Payment submission	4th week of March 2018
3.	Admit Card Release	1st week of April 2018
4.	UPSEE 2018 Exam	29th April (for UG ) and 5th & 6th May (for PG)
5.	UPSEE 2018 Answer Keys Availability	1st week of May 2018
6.	UPSEE 2018 Result Declaration	4th week of May 2018
7.	UPSEE 2018 Counselling	4th week of June to 1st week of Aug

UPSEE Answer Key- How to view?

Candidates must follow the procedure listed below to view their UPSEE 2018 Answer Key. Make sure that you are tallying the marks of your own set to avoid any confusion in the mismatch of correct options.

1. Click here to download the official UPSEE 2018 Answer key. The link will be updated as soon as the official answer key is released by AKTU.
2. Depending on the question paper code as printed on your question paper, download the relevant answer key.
3. You’d be able to view the preliminary Answer Key of your stream on the screen.
4. It is advised that you take a print out of the preliminary answer key.

UPSEE Answer Key- Advantages

Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Technical University, the authority that conducts the exam will first release a UPSEE 2018 answer key. This will enable students to compare their responses with those given in the answer key and calculate probable scores.

Challenging UPSEE Answer Key 2018

The candidates are requested to go through the answers and solutions of these papers. In case you find a discrepancy in the answer sheet, you may write to the University within a week or two by following the given steps:

• Mail must be sent to [email protected]
• Subject must be: Paper name, grievance against Solutions of UPSEE-2018
• Please note that the content of your emails specifies the following elements.
  1. Roll Number:
  2. Name:
  3. Phone Number:
  4. Paper:
  5. Set Number:
  6. Specific question number which you disagree with the solution provided by the University:
  7. Answer Key notified by the university:
  8. Answer key of the specified question according to you:
  9. Proof/description/justification of your answer:
  10. The candidates must also send a scanned copy of any relevant textbook for reference if required.
• Any Mail not duly containing the information above shall be considered vague & thereby rejected

The answer key to previous year‘s question papers can be found here.

UPSEE 2018 Syllabus

Papers for B. Tech	Section A- Physics	Section B- Chemistry	Section C –Mathematics
Syllabus for Paper 1	Measurement, Motion in one dimension, Laws of Motion, Motion in two dimensions, Work, Power and Energy, Linear Momentum & collisions, Rotation of a rigid body about a fixed axis, Gravitation, Oscillatory motion, Mechanics of solids and fluids, Heat and Thermodynamics, Wave, Electrostatics, Current Electricity, Magnetic Effect of Current, Magnetism in Matter, Electromagnetic induction, Ray Optics and optical instruments, Wave Optics & Modern Physics.	Atomic Structure, Chemical Bonding, Redox Reactions, Chemical Equilibrium and Kinetics, Acid – Base Concepts, Electrochemistry, Catalysis, Colloids, Colligative Properties of Solution, Periodic Table, Thermochemistry, General Organic Chemistry, Isomerism, IUPAC, Polymers, Carbohydrates, Preparation and Properties, Solid State & Petroleum.	Algebra, Probability, Trigonometry, Co-ordinate Geometry, Calculus, Vectors, Dynamics, Statics
	Section A- Physics	Section B – Chemistry	Section C –Biology
Syllabus forPaper 2 (PCB)	Measurement, Motion in one dimension, Laws of Motion, Motion in two dimensions, Work, Power and Energy, Linear Momentum & collisions, Rotation of a rigid body about a fixed axis, Gravitation, Oscillatory motion, Mechanics of solids and fluids, Heat and Thermodynamics, Wave, Electrostatics, Current Electricity, Magnetic Effect of Current, Magnetism in Matter, Electromagnetic induction, Ray Optics and optical instruments, Wave Optics & Modern Physics.	Atomic Structure, Chemical Bonding, Redox Reactions, Chemical Equilibrium and Kinetics, Acid – Base Concepts, Electrochemistry, Catalysis, Colloids, Colligative Properties of Solution, Periodic Table, Thermochemistry, General Organic Chemistry, Isomerism, IUPAC, Polymers, Carbohydrates, Preparation and Properties, Solid State & Petroleum.	Origin of Life, Organic Evolution, Mechanism of Organic Evolution, Human Genetics and Eugenics, Applied Biology, Mammalian Anatomy, Animal Physiology, Plant cell, Protoplasm, Ecology, Ecosystem, Genetics, Seeds in Angiospermic Plants, Fruits, Cell differentiation, Anatomy of root, stem and leaf, Important phylum, Soil & Photosynthesis.

 Syllabus for Paper 3 (AG-I, AG-II, AG-III) 

Agricultural Physics, Agricultural Chemistry, Agricultural Engineering, Agricultural Statistics, Agronomy & Agricultural Botany

Syllabus for Paper 4 (Aptitude Test for Architecture)

Part A – Mathematics and Aesthetic Sensitivity Mathematics:

Algebra, Probability, Trigonometry, Co-ordinate Geometry, Calculus, Vectors, Dynamics, Statics, Aesthetic Sensitivity Test

Part B – Drawing Aptitude

Evaluating the understanding of scale and proportion, sense of perspective, colour, and understanding the effects of light on objects through shades and shadows

Syllabus for Paper 5 (Aptitude Test for General Awareness (BHMCT/BFAD/BFA)

This paper is on the following topics:

1. Reasoning & Logical Deduction
2. Numerical Ability & Scientific Aptitude
3. General Knowledge
4. English Language

Syllabus for Paper 6 (Aptitude Test for Diploma Holders in Engineering)

This paper tests you in Engineering Mechanics & Graphics, Basic Electrical Engineering, Basic Electronics Engineering, Elements of Computer Science, Elementary Biology, Basic Workshop Practice and Physics/Chemistry & Maths of Diploma level.

UPSEE 2015 – Branch Cut Off

After checking your answers with the official answer key, you can either wait for the results or estimate your rank to know the college you are most likely to join. You can do this by cross-checking with previous years’ cutoff ranks for various institutes and branches.

Let’s have a look at the branch-wise closing ranks of UPSEE, 2015.

Branches	Closing Rank
Computer Science Engineering	34965
Mechanical Engineering	34984
Electrical Engineering	34981
Civil Engineering	34992
Electronics Engineering	31126
Information Technology	34966
Chemical Engineering	34775
Aeronautical Engineering	25785
Manufacturing Engineering	24107
Electronics and Communication Engineering	34948

UPSEE 2016 – Branch Cut Off

Let’s have a look into the college wise closing ranks of different departments in UPSEE, 2016.

Computer Science Engineering

S.No	Name of the College	Closing Rank
1	Ajay Kumar Garg Engineering College, Ghaziabad	2970
2	Bundelkhand Institute of Engineering and Technology, Jhansi	1287
3	Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Technology for Handicapped, Kanpur	903
4	Feroze Gandhi Institute of Engineering and Technology, Raibareli	1270
5	Galgotias College of Engineering and Technology, Greater Noida	3939
6	Harcourt Butler Technological Institute, Kanpur	164
7	Institute of Engineering and Technology, Lucknow	405
8	Institute of Engineering and Rural Technology, Allahabad	2867
9	JSS Academy of Technical Education, Noida	2095
10	Kamla Nehru Institute of Technology, Sultanpur	1326

Mechanical Engineering

S.No	Name of the College	Closing Rank
1	Bundelkhand Institute of Engineering and Technology, Jhansi	1416
2	BBS College of Engineering and Technology, Allahabad	4216
3	Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Engineering College of Information Technology, Banda	2561
4	Feroze Gandhi Institute of Engineering and Technology, Raibareli	142
5	Harcourt Butler Technological Institute, Kanpur	303
6	Institute of Engineering and Technology, Lucknow	732
7	JSS Academy of Technical Education, Noida	3449
8	Kamla Nehru Institute of Technology, Sultanpur	1489
9	Kali Charan Nigam Institute of Technology, Banda	1381
10	Manyawar Kansi Ram Engineering College of Information Technology, Azamgarh	3078

Electrical Engineering

S.No	Name of the College	Closing Rank
1	Bundelkhand Institute of Engineering and Technology, Jhansi	1899
2	Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Engineering College of Information Technology, Banda	3177
3	Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Engineering College of Information Technology, Bijnor	3345
4	Harcourt Butler Technological Institute, Kanpur	325
5	Institute of Engineering and Technology, Lucknow	783
6	JSS Academy of Technical Education, Noida	4101
7	Kamla Nehru Institute of Technology, Sultanpur	1779
8	Manyawar Kansi Ram Engineering College of Information Technology, Ambedkar Nagar	4576
9	Prasad Institute of Technology, Jaunpur	3743
10	United College of Engineering and Research, Greater Noida	1573

Electronics Engineering

S.No	Name of the College	Closing Rank
1	Azad Institute of Engineering and Technology, Lucknow	28335
2	Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Technology for Handicapped, Kanpur	584
3	Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia Avadh University, Faizabad	19171
4	Harcourt Butler Technological Institute, Kanpur	435
5	Institute of Engineering and Rural Technology, Allahabad	3601
6	Kamla Nehru Institute of Technology, Sultanpur	1956
7	Shri Ram Murti Smarak College of Engineering and Technology,Lucknow	31126

Information Technology

S.No	Name of the College	Closing Rank
1	Ajay Kumar Garg Engineering College, Ghaziabad	5108
2	Bundelkhand Institute of Engineering and Technology, Jhansi	2204
3	Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Technology for Handicapped, Kanpur	1280
4	Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Engineering College of Information Technology, Banda	3187
5	Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Engineering College of Information Technology, Bijnor	3791
6	Harcourt Butler Technological Institute, Kanpur	486
7	Institute of Engineering and Technology, Lucknow	875
8	JSS Academy of Technical Education, Noida	3753
9	Kamla Nehru Institute of Technology, Sultanpur	2152
10	Manyawar Kansi Ram Engineering College of Information Technology, Azamgarh	5083

UPSEE 2017 Question Paper

Physics

001. A light ray moving in medium- I (of refractive index n1) is incident on the interface of two media and it is totally internally reflected at the interface. Now refractive index n2 of medium-II is decreased, then

(A) ray will be totally transmitted in medium-II.
(B) ray will move completely parallel to the interface .
(C) ray will be still totally internally reflected at interface.
(D) ray will be totally transmitted into medium-II only if angle of incidence is increased.

002. A light beam consists of two types of photons. In one type each photon has energy 2eV and in other type each photon has energy 3eV. The light beam is incident on a photoelectric material of work function 1eV. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron is :
(A) leV (B) 2eV
(C) 3eV (D) 4eV

003. A light beam parallel to axis is incident on the system of four convex lenses A, B, C and D. Focal lengths of A, B, C and D are 30cm, 10cm, 30cm and 10cm respectively as shown. Here fixed distance BC=20cm. What should be the distance between the lens A and lens D so that after refractions, rays will be parallel to axis in regions I, III and V?

(A) 20 cm (B) 40 cm
(C) 100 cm (D) 80 cm

004. A long silver tea spoon is placed in a cup filled with hot tea. After some time, the exposed end (the end which is not dipped in tea) of the spoon becomes hot even without a direct contact with the tea. This phenomenon can be explained mainly by:
(A) thermal expansion (B) conduction
(C) reflection (D) radiation

005. Figure shows a nonconducting semicircular rod in xy plane. Top half (quarter circle) has uniform linear charge density – mwhereas remaining half has uniform linear charge density + m. What is the direction of the net electric field at point P?

(A) along +x axis
(B) along +y axis
(C) electric field is zero at point P, so direction cannot be determined.
(D) along the bisector of x axis and y axis.

006. A bead of mass m can slide without friction on a fixed circular horizontal ring of radius 3R having centre at the point C. The bead is attached to one of the ends of spring of spring constant k. Natural length of spring is R and the other end of the spring is fixed at point O as shown in figure. Bead is released from position A, what will be kinetic
energy of the bead when it reaches at point B ?

(A) 12 kR²          (B) 25/2 kR²        (C) 9/2 kR²    (D) 8kR²

007. The total electrostatic energy stored in both the capacitors is :

(A) 18 nJ (B) 9 nJ
(C) 40.5 nJ (D) 13.5 nJ

008. Gravitational force acts on a particle due to fixed uniform solid sphere. Neglect other forces. Then
particle :
(A) experiences a force directed along the radial direction only.
(B) always moves normal to the radial direction
(C) always moves in the radial direction only.
(D) always moves in circular orbit.

009. A block performs simple harmonic motion with equilibrium point x = 0. Graph of acceleration of the
block as a function of time is shown. Which of the following statement is correct about the block?

(A) speed is maximum at t=3s.
(B) displacement from equilibrium is maximum at t=4s.
(C) speed is maximum at t=4s.
(D) speed is minimum at t=2s.

010. There are two identical springs each of spring constant k. Here springs, pulley and rods are massless and block has mass m. What is the extension of each spring at equilibrium ?

(A) mg/k      (B) 2mg/ k         (C) mg/2k  (D) 3mg/4k

011. Two tuning forks A and B produce 4 beats/sec. Forks B and C produce 5 beats/sec. Forks A and Cmay produce ……. beats/sec.
(A) 2 (B) 5
(C) 9 (D) 20

012. A 10gm bullet moving directly upward at 1000 m/s strikes and passes through the center of mass of a 10 kg block initially at rest .The bullet emerges from the block moving directly upward at 400 m/s. What will be velocity of the block just after the bullet comes out of it ?

(A) 0.6 m/s (B) 1 m/s
(C) 0.4 m/s (D) 1.4 m/s

013. Two identical balls P and Q are projected with same speeds in vertical plane from same point O with making projection angles with horizontal 30° and 60° respectively and they fall directly on plane AB at points P’ and Q’ respectively. Which of the following statement is true about distances as given in options?
(A) AP’ = AQ’ as there are complimentary projection angles.
(B) AP’ > AQ’
(C) AP’ < AQ’
(D) AP’ ≤ AQ’

014. A string has a length of 5m between fixed points and has fundamental frequency of 20 Hz. What is the frequency of the second overtone?
(A) 30 Hz (B) 40 Hz
(C) 50 Hz (D) 60 Hz

015. Displacement x versus t² graph is shown for a particle. The acceleration of the particle is :

(A) 2m/s2 (B) 4m/s2
(C) 8m/s2 (D) zero

016. For given LR circuit, growth of current as function of time t is shown in graph. Which of the following
option represents value of time constant most closely for the circuit?
(A) 0.4 s (B) 0.7 s (C) 1 s (D) 2.4 s

017. Radii of two conducting circular loops are b and a respectively where b > > a. Centers of both loops coincide but planes of both loops are perpendicular to each other. The value of mutual inductance for these loops :

018. A block of mass of 1kg is moving on the x axis. A force F acting on the block is shown. Velocity of the block at time t=2s is – 3 / m s. What is the speed of the block at time t = 4s ?
(A) 5 m/s (B) 8 m/s
(C) 2 m/s (D) 3 m/s

019. Two particles P and Q are moving on a circle. At a certain instant of time both the particles are diametrically opposite and P has tangential acceleration 8m/s2 and centripetal acceleration 5m/s2 whereas Q has only centripetal acceleration of 1m/s2. At that instant acceleration (in m/s2) of P with respect to Q is :
(A) 12 (B) 14
(C) 80 (D) 10

020. In the given figure, atmospheric pressure P0=1 atm and mercury column length is 9cm. Pressure P of the gas enclosed in the tube is :
(A) pressure of 85cm of Hg
(B) pressure of 67cm of Hg
(C) pressure of 90cm of Hg
(D) pressure of 78cm of Hg

021. PV diagram of an ideal gas is shown. The gas undergoes from initial state A to final state B such that initial and final volumes are same . Select the correct alternative for given process AB.

(A) process is isochoric
(B) work done by gas is positive
(C) work done by gas is negative
(D) temperature of gas increases continuously

022. A small object of mass of 100gm moves in a circular path. At a given instant velocity of the object is 10i m/s t and acceleration is (20 1 i j 0 2 + ) / m s t t . At this instant of time, rate of change of kinetic energy of the object is :

(A) 20 kgm2s–3
(B) 200 kgm2s–3
(C) 300 kgm2s–3
(D) 10000kgm2s–3

023. A time varying horizontal force (in Newton) F t = 8 ( sin 4r ) is acting on a stationary block of mass 2kg as shown. Friction coefficient between the block and ground is n= 0.5 and g m 10 /s 2 = . Then resulting motion of the block will be :
(A) It moves towards right
(B) It will oscillate
(C) It remains stationary
(D) It moves towards left

024. Take Bulk modulus of water B M = 2100 Pa. What increase in pressure is required to decrease the volume of 200 liters of water by 0.004 percent ?

(A) 84 kPa (B) 210 kPa
(C) 840 kPa (D) 8400 kPa

025. Thin semicircular part ABC has mass m1 and diameter AOC has mass m2. Here axis passes through mid point of diameter and the axis is perpendicular to plane ABC. Here AO=OC=R. The moment of inertia of this composite system about the axis is:

026. In Young’s double slit experiment, the path difference between two interfering waves at a point on screen is 13.5 times the wavelength. The point is:

(A) dark
(B) bright but not central bright
(C) neither bright nor dark
(D) central bright

027. A ball having velocity v towards right and having angular velocity clockwise approaches the wall. It collides elastically with wall and moves towards left. Ground and wall are frictionless . Select the correct statement about angular velocity of the ball after collision.

(A) It will be clockwise
(B) It will be anticlockwise
(C) It becomes zero
(D) Angular speed decreases

028. Which of the following particle will describe the smallest circle when projected with same velocity perpendicular to magnetic field ?
(A) electron  (B) proton
(C) He+ (D) Li+

029. A loop PQR carries a current of 2A as shown. A uniform magnetic field (B=2T) is parallel to plane of the loop. The magnetic torque on the loop is :
(A) 4 Nm (B) 16 Nm
(C) 8 Nm (D) zero

030. The sides of a rectangle are 7.01m and 12m. Taking the significant figures into account , the area of the rectangle is :
(A) 84m2 (B) 84.1m2
(C) 84.00m2 (D) 84.12m2

031. In steady state, charge on 3nF capacitor is :
(A) 54 nC (B) 36 nC
(C) 27 nC (D) 18 nC

032. Consider one dimensional motion of a particle. Velocity v versus time t graph is shown. Which graph is most appropriate for displacement x versus time t ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

033. An object of mass 26kg floats in air and it is in equilibrium state. Air density is 1.3 kg/m3 . The volume of the object is :
(A) 26 m3 (B) 10 m3
(C) 20 m3 (D) 13 m3

034. In the given circuit cell E has internal resistance of r = 2X.What is the value of resistance R so that power delivered to resistor R is maximum ?
(A) 1W (B) 2W
(C) 3W (D) 5W

035. Two cylindrical rods A and B have same resistivities and same lengths . Diameter of rod A is twice the diameter of the rod B. Ratio of voltage drop across rod A to rod B is :
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2
(C) 2       (D) 4

036. Which of the following material is not ferromagnetic in nature ?
(A) Al (B) Fe
(C) Co (D) Ni

037. Three small balls of masses 1kg, 2kg and 3kg are moving in a plane and their velocities are 1 m/s, 2 m/s and 3m/s respectively as shown. The total angular momentum of the system of the three balls about point P at given instant of time is :
(A) 7 kgm2s–1 (B) 8 kgm2s–1
(C) 9 kgm2s–1 (D) 36 kgm2s–1

038. Three identical resistors each of resistance R are connected to an ideal cell of voltage V as shown .
Total power dissipated in all three resistors is :
(A)2V²/ 3R (B)3V²/ 2R
(C) 3V²/R      (D) V²/3R

039. For given logic diagram , output F=1, then inputs are:
(A) A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 (B) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0 (C) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 (D) A = 1, B = 1, C = 1

040. Consider two polaroids A and B as shown. Unpolarized light is incident on polaroid A. Now both the polaroids are rotated simultaneously by 180° in same sense of rotation such that at every instant, their pass(transmission) axes always remain parallel to each other. During the rotation, intensity of transmitted light through polaroid B :
(A) decreases continuously
(B) increases continuously
(C) first increases then decreases
(D) remains same

041. Activity of a radioactive substance becomes from 8000Bq to 1000Bq in 12 Days. What is the half life
of the radioactive substance ?
(A) 3 days (B) 4 days
(C) 6 days (D) 2 days

042. The energy levels of a hypothetical one electron atom system are given by E n 16 n = – 2 eV, where
n = 1, 2, 3,….The wavelength of emitted photon corresponding to transition from first excited level to ground level is about :

(A) 690 A° (B) 1035 A° (C) 1220 A° (D) 3650 A°

043. What is the voltage across an ideal PN junction diode for shown circuit ?
(A) 0V (B) 0.7V
(C) 1V (D) 2V

044. Power emitted by a black body at temperature 50°C is P. Now temperature is doubled i.e. temperature of
black body becomes 100°C. Now power emitted is :
(A) 16 P
(B) greater than P but less than 16P
(C) greater than 16P
(D) P

045. An experimenter needs to heat a small sample to temperature 900K, but the only available large object has maximum temperature of 600K. Could the experimenter heat the sample to 900K by using a large lens to concentrate the radiation from the large object onto the sample as shown below ?
(A) Yes, if the volume of the large object is at least 1.5 times the volume of the sample.
(B) Yes, if the front area of the large object is at least 1.5 times the area of the front of the sample.
(C) Yes, if the sample is placed at the focal point of the lens.
(D) It is not possible

046. Consider a small electric dipole with magnitude of dipole moment p which is placed far away from point
A as shown. The electric potential at the point A is :
(A) exactly zero      (B) kp/r²
(C)-kp/r²           (D) kp/r

047. A conducting loop (as shown) has total resistance R. A uniform magnetic field B = γt is applied
perpendicular to plane of the loop where γ is a constant and t is time. The induced current flowing
through loop is

048. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is hinged at its centre C. A force F is applied on the disc as shown.
At this instant, angular acceleration of the disc is :
(A) F/2MR    (B)√3F/ MR
(C)F/ MR     (D) 2/√3 (F/MR)

049. The velocity of a particle is zero at time t=2 , then
(A) acceleration must be zero at t=2
(B) displacement must be zero in the interval t=0 to t=2.
(C) acceleration may be zero at t=2
(D) velocity must be zero for t>2 050. A ball moving in xy plane, has velocity (4 i j – 4 / )m s t t
just before the collision with ground. Coefficient of restitution for collision is e 2 1 = . What will be velocity
of the ball just after the collision with ground?
(A) (4 i j + 4 ) m s/ t t (B) (2 i j + 2 ) m s/ t t
(C) (4 i j + 2 ) / m s t t (D) (2 i j + 4 ) m s

Question Paper	SET-AA	SET-AB	SET-AC	SET-AD
	KEY	KEY	KEY	KEY

UPSEE Qualifying criteria

For admissions in Bachelor & dual degree programs offered by affiliated colleges, candidates have to score 45% marks if they are of general category. SC/ST candidates will qualify if they score 40% marks. For admission to courses – B.Arch, MBA & MCA, general candidates must score 50% marks & SC/ST candidates must score 45% marks.

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